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Great post. One quick question - probably a dumb one:

"However, much of this debt is outside of the US, while the US Private Sector has delevered5. This is what caused inflation in the first place."

Why has the de-levering caused inflation in the first place? I'm struggling to make the connection.

I assume what you're saying it's due to government transfer payments into the pockets of corporates and consumers? But then if they used that money to de-lever they wouldn't have used it on consumption so why would it be inflationary?

Sorry if you previously talked about it and I missed it.

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Thanks Chris for the Q. Delevering by pay down after GFC, then turbocharged w covid stimulus and stay at home savings. Chart I am showing is proxy for the "net debt" position of US private sector, ie debt - cash. Cash offsets debt as can be used for paydown. This is assymetrically spread, with lower income quintiles already back to pre covid state

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